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Exam Code: 70-337
Exam Name: Enterprise Voice & Online Services with Microsoft Lync Server 2013
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
70-337 Exam Dumps Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 09-03,2014

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NO.1 You administer a company network that includes a wireless network infrastructure and
computers that
run Windows 8 Enterprise.You are planning to add a guest wireless network.
You need to collect information about nearby wireless networks, including their encryption
methods.Which
command should you include in the batch file?
A.netsh wlan show networks
B.netsh wlan show hostednetwork
C.netstat a
D.Get-WmiObject win32_networkadapterconfiguration -Filter 'ipenabled = "true"'
E.PowerShell commandlet Get-Netadapter with parameter -Wireless
F.PowerShell commandlet Get-Host
Answer: A

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NO.2 The Los Angeles users have the following call statistics:
¡ ¤Peak call concurrency is 25 percen
¡ ¤Fifty percent of all placed calls are routed to the PSTN
¡ ¤Thirty percen of all placed calls are internal calls to users in the other offices.
¡¤ Twenty percent of all placed calls are conference calls
¡ ¤The average bandwidth for pee-to-peer calls is 65 kilobits per second (Kbps).
¡ ¤The average bandwidth used for conference cals is 100 Kbps.You need to identify the minimum
amount
of bandwidth required on the WAN link for the planned implementation of the media gateway in
the Los
Angeles office.All calls to the PSTN will be routed through the local media gateway in the Los
Angeles
office.How much bandwidth should you identify?
A.10.00 megabits per second (Mbps)
B.3.95 megabits per second (Mbps)
C.2.25 megabits per second (Mbps)
D.7.20 megabits per second (Mbps)
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are editing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that contains three Execute
SQL
tasks and no other tasks.The package and all three Execute SQL tasks have their TransactionOption
property set to Supported.You need to ensure that if any of the Execute SQL tasks fail, all three tasks
will
roll back their changes.What should you do?
A.Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Sequence container.
B.Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Foreach Loop container.
C.Change the TransactionOption property of the package to Required.
D.Change the TransactionOption property of all three Execute SQL tasks to Required.
Answer:C

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NO.4 Your network contains four servers.The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You need to configure backend integration between Lync Server 2013 and Exchange Server 2010
Unified
Messaging (UM).You create a dial plan and an auto attendant in the Exchange Server
organization.What
should you do next?
A.On Server1, run ocsumutil.exe.
B.On Server2, run ocsumutil.exe.
C.On Server3, run exchucutil.ps1.
D.On Server4, run exchucutil.ps1.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You need to prepare the Enterprise Voice infrastructure for E911.Which two cmdlets should
you run?
(Each correct answer presents part of the solution.Choose two.)
A.Set-CsVoiceConfiguration
B.Set-CsPstnUsage
C.New-CsVoiceRoutingPolicy
D.New-CsVoiceRoute
E.Enable-CSPublicProvider
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: 98-379
Exam Name: Software Testing Fundamentals
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
98-379 Braindumps Total Q&A: 250 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 09-03,2014

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NO.1 HOTSPOT
You have the following flow chart:
Use the drop-down menus to answer each question. Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:

NO.2 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Test-driven development is a feature of certain forms of waterfall software development
lifecycles.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No
change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Agile
C. Spiral
D. Top-down
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are using Microsoft Test Manager to run automated tests in a virtual environment.
If a script fails, which three actions can you perform in Microsoft Test Manager? (Choose three.)
A. Abort
B. Retry
C. Skip
D. Save
E. Continue
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 You use Microsoft Test Manager to test a solution.
Which two statements about using test cases in Microsoft Test Manager are correct? (Choose two.)
A. You can share steps between different test cases.
B. You need to add all fields to a test case when you create the test case.
C. You must define test cases by using Microsoft Test Manager.
D. You can add attachments and hyperlinks to test cases.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which two techniques are used to gather data when you are profiling an application?
(Choose two.)
A. Plug-in
B. Instrumentation
C. Sampling
D. Editor extension point
E. Interrupts
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 You are developing an application to track the migration patterns of birds.
The application must support 250 simultaneous users.
How should you test for this requirement?
A. Perform regression testing.
B. Perform load testing.
C. Host the application on a cluster.
D. Limit the functionality of the application.
Answer: B

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NO.7 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Visual Studio saves test result data in a .txt file.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No
change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. .dat
C. .tst
D. .trx
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two items are measurements of software quality? (Choose two.)
A. Program load time
B. End-user acceptance testing
C. Requirements analysis
D. User interface responsiveness
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: M2150-709
Exam Name: IBM Security Systems Sales Mastery Test v3
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M2150-709 Exam Dumps Total Q&A: 49 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 09-03,2014

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NO.1 There were 3 themes used to describe QRadar"s value. Which of those 3 themes is one that
best relates to the unified view that the QRadar Console offers its customers?
A. Analysis
B. Automation
C. Intelligence
D. Integration
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a value/feature of zSecure Compliance and Auditing?
A. Real time monitoring of database activities
B. Centralized view of enterprise security incidents
C. Unified management of keys across disparate platforms
D. Addresses real time audit control points, especially network audit control points
Answer: A

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NO.3 The IBM Security Network Protection (XGS) platform provides which of the following features
on top of what is provided by the IBM Security Network IPS platform?
A. Advanced Threat Protection
B. Visibility and Control
C. Application Scanning capabilities
D. Security Intelligence
Answer: B

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NO.4 In considering the overall SIEM competitive landscape, what are the 2 top points that favor
QRadar over all of its competitors?
A. Broadest set of integrated capabilities and ease of deployment.
B. Deepest packet inspection, and it is frequently the lowest priced offering.
C. Runs on any platform and offers a toolkit with the greatest modularity - a real plus with technical
teams.
D. Easiest to learn customization language and search performance.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 The common architecture across the QRadar products offers advantages over the competition.
What are the main 2 advantages that were covered?
A. Opens areas of visibility into your network and scales easily.
B. QRadar is a well architected toolkit that can 1) satisfy even very obscure and complex
requirements and 2) outperform other competitors no matter what the use case.
C. QRadar works on most available platforms and is integrated with more products than other
competitive products are.
D. QRadar itself is highly secure, and because its architecture is open, it has been approved by NIST
and OASIS
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Name a competitor to IBM zSecure.
A. Oracle
B. Vanguard
C. Hewlett Packard
D. Serena Software
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the primary customer requirement that Access Manager for Web (formerly Access
Manager for e-business) addresses?
A. Web single sign-on.
B. Service oriented architecture application access management.
C. Hardening servers involved in e-business transactions.
D. Enterprise e-business audit log management and reporting.
Answer: A

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NO.8 In the RSA breach case study, how was the attack enabled?
A. A Spear-Phishing email containing a weaponized attachment
B. A SQL injection attack on the RSA partner portal
C. A DDOS attack on the company's web servers
Answer: A

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Exam Code: M2020-615
Exam Name: IBM Business Analytics Performance Management Sales Mastery Test v2
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M2020-615 Real Dumps Total Q&A: 47 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 09-03,2014

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NO.1 Which of the following characteristics positions IBM's Enterprise Disclosure Management
solution when electronic filing is a key requirement?
A. Timely, accurate delivery of performance reports and narrative analysis to internal and external
stakeholders.
B. Standardize and automate manual processes
C. Speeds and simplifies creation of reports that require use of XBRL - i.e. extensible business
reporting language
D. Reduces the risk of errors inherent in spreadsheet-based processes and activities
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.newcomp.com/EN/solutions/EnterpriseDisclosureManagement.cfm

NO.2 Which statement is TRUE about integration between IBM Business Analytics Performance
Management solutions and ERP platforms?
A. Vendor consolidation leads to better integration.
B. BI and PM solutions offered by ERP vendors support all ERP environments equally.
C. IBM Cognos PM products work well with any ERP environment
D. Using the same vendor for PM and ERP process results in a lower total cost of ownership.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of following statements is TRUE regarding the benefits of IBM's Business Analytics SPM
solutions for management and sales executives?
A. Scenario modeling helps determine appropriate plan changes resulting in better decision making
B. Input forms and Presenter allow quick changes to data and reports.
C. Visibility into details viewed by direct reports helps resolve inquiries faster.
D. Process Lists keep common tasks organized and ensure nothing is missed.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is concerned that the organization expends a lot of effort preparing narrative
reports which leaves little-to-no time to perform analysis and improve performance of the
organization.
What aspects of IBM's Enterprise Disclosure Management solutions will primarily meet the needs of
this customer?
A. Structure & automate low value, manual and error prone processes
B. Scale to large user communities and data sets
C. Integrate disparate data sources
D. Applies security and access controls
Answer: A

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NO.5 A sales representative has just secured a meeting with a manager in the CFO's office. What
tactic should they avoid for this initial meeting?
A. Be credible.
B. Be a strategic resource.
C. Focus on the customer.
D. Focus on the sale.
Answer: D

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NO.6 In addition to Incentive Compensation Management and Territory Management, which
activities can be accomplished with IBM's Business Analytics SPM Solutions?
A. A Channel Management and Quota Planning
B. Customer Relationship Management and Channel Management
C. Sales Forecasting and Quota Planning
D. Customer Relationship Management and Sales Forecasting
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which aspect of IBM's Business Analytics FPM solutions is most likely to appeal to a CIO or IT
director?
A. Leverage existing ERP investments with proven solutions
B. Keep the look and feel of Excel, but in an automated driver-based model
C. Avert surprises from financial and operational performance
D. Gain early insights to enable redirection relative to corporate goals
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following buyer roles is typically not seen in the SPM sales cycle?
A. Finance
B. IT
C. Marketing
D. HR
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Administration of Storage Foundation and HA 6.0 for Windows
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Last Update: 09-02,2014

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NO.1 An application is under maintenance for a application update on Server2. The application administrator
wants Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) to keep the application running on Server2, but fault the service group
and resource if a resource faults. Which service group attribute can accomplish this?
A. Priority
B. Evacuate
C. Frozen
D. Load
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which MountV resource attribute should be set to reduce failover time?
A. AutoFSClean
B. CheckFSAccess
C. PurgeStaleMountPoints
D. ForceUnmount
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which benefit specific to Campus clusters does Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Windows offer?
A. storage live migration
B. extended attributes
C. replicated data
D. site aware allocation
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which feature is available when Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) is configured in secure mode?
A. SSL to encrypt communication between cluster nodes
B. a single sign-on mechanism to connect to a cluster
C. an isolated and secure environment for running applications
D. root broker configured in a stand-alone system outside cluster
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which command is used to validate recent changes made to the cluster configuration?
A. hasys -verify
B. haconf -verify
C. hacf -verify
D. hastatus verify
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two system components are verified during a pre-installation check for Veritas Storage
Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows? (Select two.)
A. shared disk storage compatibility
B. total physical memory
C. aggregate CPU performance
D. Active Directory
E. available installation disk space
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 Which process enables the renaming of an imported dynamic disk group named DGName in Veritas
Enterprise Administrator?
A. right-click on disk group object DGName, select rename Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
B. select disk group object DGName, press F2, enter new name
C. right-click on disk object DGName, select Deport Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
D. select disk group object DGName, select Import Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the minimum permission required to install Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability
Solutions 6.0 for Windows.?
A. Domain Administrator
B. Local Administrator
C. Domain Operator
D. Local User
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 250-271
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for UNIX
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250-271 Dumps PDF Total Q&A: 230 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 09-02,2014

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NO.1 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 administrator needs to prevent all client systems from performing
user-directed restore operations, while maintaining the client administrator's ability to view the contents of
backup images. How should the administrator proceed?
A. add DISALLOW_CLIENT_RESTORE to the Symantec NetBackup configuration settings on the client
systems
B. select the Allow browse only parameter for the clients included in the Client Attributes of the master
server Host Properties
C. select the Allow client browse parameter in the Host Properties of the client system
D. deselect the Allow client restore parameter in the Host Properties of the master server system
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which script moves client software to a remote UNIX client from a UNIX master server?
A. ftp_to_client
B. install_client_files
C. client_config
D. send_client_files
E. update_client
Answer: B

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NO.3 The configuration parameters MIN_GB_SIZE_PER_DUPLICATION_JOB and
IMAGE_EXTENDED_RETRY_PERIOD_IN_HOURS are part of the configuration for which feature?
A. Catalog Replication
B. Disk Staging
C. Storage Lifecycle Policy
D. NetBackup Vault
Answer: C

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NO.4 An organization plans to upgrade its master server to Symantec NetBackup 7.5. A Symantec
NetBackup media server is being used to perform a backup of the catalog. Which Symantec NetBackup
version or versions are supported on the media server performing the catalog backup?
A. 6.5, 7.0, or 7.1
B. 7.5 only
C. 7.1 or 7.5 only
D. 7.0, 7.1, or 7.5
Answer: B

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NO.5 A Symantec NetBackup administrator configures a policy to perform file system backups of multiple
client systems using the Allow multiple data streams feature. All other policy attributes are at default
settings. Which master server parameter must be configured to enable the backup jobs from a client to
run concurrently?
A. Target storage unit: Maximum concurrent jobs
B. Global Attributes: Maximum jobs per client
C. Global Attributes: Maximum backup copies
D. Target storage unit: Enable multiplexing
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which types of information are backed up by a cumulative incremental backup schedule?
A. files and folders that have changed since the last differential incremental, cumulative incremental, or
full backup
B. files and folders that have changed since the last cumulative incremental or full backup
C. files and folders that have changed since the last full backup
D. files that have changed since the last incremental or full backup
Answer: C

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NO.7 Four jobs enter the Symantec NetBackup 7.5 job queue simultaneously. All jobs require the same
resources and there are resources available to run only one job at a time. All master server Host
Properties are set to default values, as are the attributes of the policies associated with the jobs. Of the
four jobs, which job will run last?
A. Backup job
B. Restore job
C. Import job
D. Duplication job
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which default Windows Open File Backup method is used during a backup for a newly installed
Symantec NetBackup 7.5 Windows 2003 client.?
A. VERITAS Snapshot Provider (VSP)
B. Microsoft Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS)
C. snapshot provider configured in Global Client Attribute
D. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 250-252
Exam Name: Administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Unix
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250-252 Bootcamp Total Q&A: 230 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 09-02,2014

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NO.1 Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
Answer: B

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NO.2 A Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disk named Disk_4 has been removed from the datadg disk group.
Which command is used to remove this disk from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) control?
A. vxdisk -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
B. vxdiskunsetup Disk_4
C. vxdg -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
D. vxdisksetup -r Disk_4
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two conditions are applicable to disks of a disk group that have been destroyed with the vxdg
destroy command without re-deploying the disks? (Select two.)
A. The destroy operation retains the on-disk disk group ID, which makes the disk group recoverable.
B. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group ID, which makes recovery impossible.
C. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and makes disks available for use in other
disk groups.
D. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and re-initializes all of the disks.
E. The destroy operation deports the disk group and re-formats all of the disks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg.
There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be
affected for planning purposes. Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?
A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg
B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12
C. vxdg list appdg webdg
D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the default private region size for Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disks?
A. 8MB
B. 16MB
C. 32MB
D. 64MB
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which region stores the information that manages virtual devices when a LUN is brought under Veritas
Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX control?
A. private region
B. VTOC region
C. virtual region
D. public region
Answer: A

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NO.7 What enables combining disks or LUNs into logical collections to make administration easier?
A. volume
B. plex
C. subdisk
D. disk group
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which command can an administrator use to display the bsize and logsize used on an existing file
system?
A. mkfs
B. fsadm
C. mount
D. fsmap
Answer: A

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