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Exam Code: 70-337
Exam Name: Enterprise Voice & Online Services with Microsoft Lync Server 2013
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
70-337 Exam Dumps Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 09-03,2014

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NO.1 You administer a company network that includes a wireless network infrastructure and
computers that
run Windows 8 Enterprise.You are planning to add a guest wireless network.
You need to collect information about nearby wireless networks, including their encryption
methods.Which
command should you include in the batch file?
A.netsh wlan show networks
B.netsh wlan show hostednetwork
C.netstat a
D.Get-WmiObject win32_networkadapterconfiguration -Filter 'ipenabled = "true"'
E.PowerShell commandlet Get-Netadapter with parameter -Wireless
F.PowerShell commandlet Get-Host
Answer: A

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NO.2 The Los Angeles users have the following call statistics:
¡ ¤Peak call concurrency is 25 percen
¡ ¤Fifty percent of all placed calls are routed to the PSTN
¡ ¤Thirty percen of all placed calls are internal calls to users in the other offices.
¡¤ Twenty percent of all placed calls are conference calls
¡ ¤The average bandwidth for pee-to-peer calls is 65 kilobits per second (Kbps).
¡ ¤The average bandwidth used for conference cals is 100 Kbps.You need to identify the minimum
amount
of bandwidth required on the WAN link for the planned implementation of the media gateway in
the Los
Angeles office.All calls to the PSTN will be routed through the local media gateway in the Los
Angeles
office.How much bandwidth should you identify?
A.10.00 megabits per second (Mbps)
B.3.95 megabits per second (Mbps)
C.2.25 megabits per second (Mbps)
D.7.20 megabits per second (Mbps)
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are editing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that contains three Execute
SQL
tasks and no other tasks.The package and all three Execute SQL tasks have their TransactionOption
property set to Supported.You need to ensure that if any of the Execute SQL tasks fail, all three tasks
will
roll back their changes.What should you do?
A.Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Sequence container.
B.Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Foreach Loop container.
C.Change the TransactionOption property of the package to Required.
D.Change the TransactionOption property of all three Execute SQL tasks to Required.
Answer:C

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NO.4 Your network contains four servers.The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You need to configure backend integration between Lync Server 2013 and Exchange Server 2010
Unified
Messaging (UM).You create a dial plan and an auto attendant in the Exchange Server
organization.What
should you do next?
A.On Server1, run ocsumutil.exe.
B.On Server2, run ocsumutil.exe.
C.On Server3, run exchucutil.ps1.
D.On Server4, run exchucutil.ps1.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You need to prepare the Enterprise Voice infrastructure for E911.Which two cmdlets should
you run?
(Each correct answer presents part of the solution.Choose two.)
A.Set-CsVoiceConfiguration
B.Set-CsPstnUsage
C.New-CsVoiceRoutingPolicy
D.New-CsVoiceRoute
E.Enable-CSPublicProvider
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: 98-379
Exam Name: Software Testing Fundamentals
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
98-379 Braindumps Total Q&A: 250 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 09-03,2014

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NO.1 HOTSPOT
You have the following flow chart:
Use the drop-down menus to answer each question. Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:

NO.2 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Test-driven development is a feature of certain forms of waterfall software development
lifecycles.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No
change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Agile
C. Spiral
D. Top-down
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are using Microsoft Test Manager to run automated tests in a virtual environment.
If a script fails, which three actions can you perform in Microsoft Test Manager? (Choose three.)
A. Abort
B. Retry
C. Skip
D. Save
E. Continue
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 You use Microsoft Test Manager to test a solution.
Which two statements about using test cases in Microsoft Test Manager are correct? (Choose two.)
A. You can share steps between different test cases.
B. You need to add all fields to a test case when you create the test case.
C. You must define test cases by using Microsoft Test Manager.
D. You can add attachments and hyperlinks to test cases.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which two techniques are used to gather data when you are profiling an application?
(Choose two.)
A. Plug-in
B. Instrumentation
C. Sampling
D. Editor extension point
E. Interrupts
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 You are developing an application to track the migration patterns of birds.
The application must support 250 simultaneous users.
How should you test for this requirement?
A. Perform regression testing.
B. Perform load testing.
C. Host the application on a cluster.
D. Limit the functionality of the application.
Answer: B

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NO.7 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Visual Studio saves test result data in a .txt file.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No
change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. .dat
C. .tst
D. .trx
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two items are measurements of software quality? (Choose two.)
A. Program load time
B. End-user acceptance testing
C. Requirements analysis
D. User interface responsiveness
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: M2150-709
Exam Name: IBM Security Systems Sales Mastery Test v3
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M2150-709 Exam Dumps Total Q&A: 49 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 09-03,2014

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NO.1 There were 3 themes used to describe QRadar"s value. Which of those 3 themes is one that
best relates to the unified view that the QRadar Console offers its customers?
A. Analysis
B. Automation
C. Intelligence
D. Integration
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a value/feature of zSecure Compliance and Auditing?
A. Real time monitoring of database activities
B. Centralized view of enterprise security incidents
C. Unified management of keys across disparate platforms
D. Addresses real time audit control points, especially network audit control points
Answer: A

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NO.3 The IBM Security Network Protection (XGS) platform provides which of the following features
on top of what is provided by the IBM Security Network IPS platform?
A. Advanced Threat Protection
B. Visibility and Control
C. Application Scanning capabilities
D. Security Intelligence
Answer: B

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NO.4 In considering the overall SIEM competitive landscape, what are the 2 top points that favor
QRadar over all of its competitors?
A. Broadest set of integrated capabilities and ease of deployment.
B. Deepest packet inspection, and it is frequently the lowest priced offering.
C. Runs on any platform and offers a toolkit with the greatest modularity - a real plus with technical
teams.
D. Easiest to learn customization language and search performance.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 The common architecture across the QRadar products offers advantages over the competition.
What are the main 2 advantages that were covered?
A. Opens areas of visibility into your network and scales easily.
B. QRadar is a well architected toolkit that can 1) satisfy even very obscure and complex
requirements and 2) outperform other competitors no matter what the use case.
C. QRadar works on most available platforms and is integrated with more products than other
competitive products are.
D. QRadar itself is highly secure, and because its architecture is open, it has been approved by NIST
and OASIS
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Name a competitor to IBM zSecure.
A. Oracle
B. Vanguard
C. Hewlett Packard
D. Serena Software
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the primary customer requirement that Access Manager for Web (formerly Access
Manager for e-business) addresses?
A. Web single sign-on.
B. Service oriented architecture application access management.
C. Hardening servers involved in e-business transactions.
D. Enterprise e-business audit log management and reporting.
Answer: A

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NO.8 In the RSA breach case study, how was the attack enabled?
A. A Spear-Phishing email containing a weaponized attachment
B. A SQL injection attack on the RSA partner portal
C. A DDOS attack on the company's web servers
Answer: A

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Exam Code: M2020-615
Exam Name: IBM Business Analytics Performance Management Sales Mastery Test v2
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M2020-615 Real Dumps Total Q&A: 47 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 09-03,2014

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NO.1 Which of the following characteristics positions IBM's Enterprise Disclosure Management
solution when electronic filing is a key requirement?
A. Timely, accurate delivery of performance reports and narrative analysis to internal and external
stakeholders.
B. Standardize and automate manual processes
C. Speeds and simplifies creation of reports that require use of XBRL - i.e. extensible business
reporting language
D. Reduces the risk of errors inherent in spreadsheet-based processes and activities
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.newcomp.com/EN/solutions/EnterpriseDisclosureManagement.cfm

NO.2 Which statement is TRUE about integration between IBM Business Analytics Performance
Management solutions and ERP platforms?
A. Vendor consolidation leads to better integration.
B. BI and PM solutions offered by ERP vendors support all ERP environments equally.
C. IBM Cognos PM products work well with any ERP environment
D. Using the same vendor for PM and ERP process results in a lower total cost of ownership.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of following statements is TRUE regarding the benefits of IBM's Business Analytics SPM
solutions for management and sales executives?
A. Scenario modeling helps determine appropriate plan changes resulting in better decision making
B. Input forms and Presenter allow quick changes to data and reports.
C. Visibility into details viewed by direct reports helps resolve inquiries faster.
D. Process Lists keep common tasks organized and ensure nothing is missed.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is concerned that the organization expends a lot of effort preparing narrative
reports which leaves little-to-no time to perform analysis and improve performance of the
organization.
What aspects of IBM's Enterprise Disclosure Management solutions will primarily meet the needs of
this customer?
A. Structure & automate low value, manual and error prone processes
B. Scale to large user communities and data sets
C. Integrate disparate data sources
D. Applies security and access controls
Answer: A

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NO.5 A sales representative has just secured a meeting with a manager in the CFO's office. What
tactic should they avoid for this initial meeting?
A. Be credible.
B. Be a strategic resource.
C. Focus on the customer.
D. Focus on the sale.
Answer: D

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NO.6 In addition to Incentive Compensation Management and Territory Management, which
activities can be accomplished with IBM's Business Analytics SPM Solutions?
A. A Channel Management and Quota Planning
B. Customer Relationship Management and Channel Management
C. Sales Forecasting and Quota Planning
D. Customer Relationship Management and Sales Forecasting
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which aspect of IBM's Business Analytics FPM solutions is most likely to appeal to a CIO or IT
director?
A. Leverage existing ERP investments with proven solutions
B. Keep the look and feel of Excel, but in an automated driver-based model
C. Avert surprises from financial and operational performance
D. Gain early insights to enable redirection relative to corporate goals
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following buyer roles is typically not seen in the SPM sales cycle?
A. Finance
B. IT
C. Marketing
D. HR
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Administration of Storage Foundation and HA 6.0 for Windows
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Last Update: 09-02,2014

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NO.1 An application is under maintenance for a application update on Server2. The application administrator
wants Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) to keep the application running on Server2, but fault the service group
and resource if a resource faults. Which service group attribute can accomplish this?
A. Priority
B. Evacuate
C. Frozen
D. Load
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which MountV resource attribute should be set to reduce failover time?
A. AutoFSClean
B. CheckFSAccess
C. PurgeStaleMountPoints
D. ForceUnmount
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which benefit specific to Campus clusters does Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Windows offer?
A. storage live migration
B. extended attributes
C. replicated data
D. site aware allocation
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which feature is available when Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) is configured in secure mode?
A. SSL to encrypt communication between cluster nodes
B. a single sign-on mechanism to connect to a cluster
C. an isolated and secure environment for running applications
D. root broker configured in a stand-alone system outside cluster
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which command is used to validate recent changes made to the cluster configuration?
A. hasys -verify
B. haconf -verify
C. hacf -verify
D. hastatus verify
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two system components are verified during a pre-installation check for Veritas Storage
Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows? (Select two.)
A. shared disk storage compatibility
B. total physical memory
C. aggregate CPU performance
D. Active Directory
E. available installation disk space
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 Which process enables the renaming of an imported dynamic disk group named DGName in Veritas
Enterprise Administrator?
A. right-click on disk group object DGName, select rename Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
B. select disk group object DGName, press F2, enter new name
C. right-click on disk object DGName, select Deport Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
D. select disk group object DGName, select Import Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the minimum permission required to install Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability
Solutions 6.0 for Windows.?
A. Domain Administrator
B. Local Administrator
C. Domain Operator
D. Local User
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 250-271
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for UNIX
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Last Update: 09-02,2014

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NO.1 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 administrator needs to prevent all client systems from performing
user-directed restore operations, while maintaining the client administrator's ability to view the contents of
backup images. How should the administrator proceed?
A. add DISALLOW_CLIENT_RESTORE to the Symantec NetBackup configuration settings on the client
systems
B. select the Allow browse only parameter for the clients included in the Client Attributes of the master
server Host Properties
C. select the Allow client browse parameter in the Host Properties of the client system
D. deselect the Allow client restore parameter in the Host Properties of the master server system
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which script moves client software to a remote UNIX client from a UNIX master server?
A. ftp_to_client
B. install_client_files
C. client_config
D. send_client_files
E. update_client
Answer: B

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NO.3 The configuration parameters MIN_GB_SIZE_PER_DUPLICATION_JOB and
IMAGE_EXTENDED_RETRY_PERIOD_IN_HOURS are part of the configuration for which feature?
A. Catalog Replication
B. Disk Staging
C. Storage Lifecycle Policy
D. NetBackup Vault
Answer: C

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NO.4 An organization plans to upgrade its master server to Symantec NetBackup 7.5. A Symantec
NetBackup media server is being used to perform a backup of the catalog. Which Symantec NetBackup
version or versions are supported on the media server performing the catalog backup?
A. 6.5, 7.0, or 7.1
B. 7.5 only
C. 7.1 or 7.5 only
D. 7.0, 7.1, or 7.5
Answer: B

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NO.5 A Symantec NetBackup administrator configures a policy to perform file system backups of multiple
client systems using the Allow multiple data streams feature. All other policy attributes are at default
settings. Which master server parameter must be configured to enable the backup jobs from a client to
run concurrently?
A. Target storage unit: Maximum concurrent jobs
B. Global Attributes: Maximum jobs per client
C. Global Attributes: Maximum backup copies
D. Target storage unit: Enable multiplexing
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which types of information are backed up by a cumulative incremental backup schedule?
A. files and folders that have changed since the last differential incremental, cumulative incremental, or
full backup
B. files and folders that have changed since the last cumulative incremental or full backup
C. files and folders that have changed since the last full backup
D. files that have changed since the last incremental or full backup
Answer: C

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NO.7 Four jobs enter the Symantec NetBackup 7.5 job queue simultaneously. All jobs require the same
resources and there are resources available to run only one job at a time. All master server Host
Properties are set to default values, as are the attributes of the policies associated with the jobs. Of the
four jobs, which job will run last?
A. Backup job
B. Restore job
C. Import job
D. Duplication job
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which default Windows Open File Backup method is used during a backup for a newly installed
Symantec NetBackup 7.5 Windows 2003 client.?
A. VERITAS Snapshot Provider (VSP)
B. Microsoft Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS)
C. snapshot provider configured in Global Client Attribute
D. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 250-252
Exam Name: Administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Unix
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
250-252 Bootcamp Total Q&A: 230 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 09-02,2014

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NO.1 Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
Answer: B

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NO.2 A Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disk named Disk_4 has been removed from the datadg disk group.
Which command is used to remove this disk from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) control?
A. vxdisk -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
B. vxdiskunsetup Disk_4
C. vxdg -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
D. vxdisksetup -r Disk_4
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two conditions are applicable to disks of a disk group that have been destroyed with the vxdg
destroy command without re-deploying the disks? (Select two.)
A. The destroy operation retains the on-disk disk group ID, which makes the disk group recoverable.
B. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group ID, which makes recovery impossible.
C. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and makes disks available for use in other
disk groups.
D. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and re-initializes all of the disks.
E. The destroy operation deports the disk group and re-formats all of the disks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg.
There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be
affected for planning purposes. Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?
A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg
B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12
C. vxdg list appdg webdg
D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the default private region size for Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disks?
A. 8MB
B. 16MB
C. 32MB
D. 64MB
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which region stores the information that manages virtual devices when a LUN is brought under Veritas
Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX control?
A. private region
B. VTOC region
C. virtual region
D. public region
Answer: A

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NO.7 What enables combining disks or LUNs into logical collections to make administration easier?
A. volume
B. plex
C. subdisk
D. disk group
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which command can an administrator use to display the bsize and logsize used on an existing file
system?
A. mkfs
B. fsadm
C. mount
D. fsmap
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 250-253
Exam Name: Administration of Veritas Cluster Server 6.0 for Unix
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250-253 Practice Exam Total Q&A: 235 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 09-02,2014

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NO.1 An administrator is manually adding a node named sym3 to an existing two-node cluster. What must
be done after installing Veritas Cluster Server and configuring cluster communications on the new node?
A. run hastart -add sym3 on any node
B. run hasys -force sym3 on the new node
C. run haclus -addnode sym3 on the new node
D. run hastart on the new node
Answer: D

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NO.2 When architecting Coordination Point (CP) server into a Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) environment,
what should be done to ensure the CP service remains online?
A. configure multiple CP server instances on the same node
B. configure CP server as a resource in a VCS cluster
C. ensure that the CP server is backed up regularly
D. ensure that the CP server is on a reliable network
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the first step when upgrading the operating system on a single node in a running multi-node
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) cluster?
A. offline service groups on the node
B. freeze the service groups
C. migrate parallel service groups
D. shut down VCS on all nodes
Answer: A

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NO.4 An additional email address was added to the Veritas Cluster Server notifier resource without any other
actions being taken. All but one user is receiving notifications. How can this problem be solved?
A. refresh the mailbox of the impacted user
B. restart the notifier resource
C. restart the SNMP daemon
D. restart the HAD daemon
Answer: B

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NO.5 While Veritas Cluster Server supports nodes in a cluster using different hardware or operating system
versions, this is potentially undesirable for which two reasons? (Select two.)
A. user security
B. inability to handle load on failover
C. cluster upgrades
D. operational complexity
E. network connectivity
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which type of resources are considered by Veritas Cluster Server when determining whether a service
group is online?
A. OnOnly
B. OnOff
C. Persistent
D. None
Answer: B

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NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has configured preferred fencing. Cluster communication breaks and separates sym1
from the other cluster nodes. Which node(s) will survive the fencing race?
A. sym1 only
B. sym2 only
C. sym3 only
D. both sym2 and sym3
Answer: D

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NO.8 You have removed a system from a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster so that the cluster now only
has seven nodes. You need to ensure the cluster will start successfully after a complete cluster shutdown.
Which line should be in the /etc/gabtab file to successfully start the cluster?
A. gabconfig -c -n 7
B. clust start seed=7
C. gabconfig start seed=7
D. clust -c -n 7
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CAS-001
Exam Name: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner
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CAS-001 Exam Cost Total Q&A: 493 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 09-01,2014

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NO.1 Which of the following protocols is used extensively in communication and entertainment systems that
involve streaming media, such as telephony, video teleconference applications and web-based push to
talk features?
A. SIP
B. MGCP
C. H.323
D. RTP
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which technology can be used to help ensure the efficient transport of VoIP traffic?
A. DNS
B. QoS
C. H.323
D. RSTP
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following security practices are included in the Implementation phase of the Security
Development Lifecycle (SDL)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Establish Design Requirements
B. Perform Static Analysis
C. Use Approved Tools
D. Execute Incident Response Plan
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You need to conduct network reconnaissance,
which is carried out by a remote attacker attempting to gain information or access to a network on which it
is not authorized/allowed.
What will you do?
A. Use a SuperScan
B. Use a netcat utility
C. Use a vulnerability scanner
D. Use an idle scan
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is an XML-based framework developed by OASIS and used to exchange user,
resource and service provisioning information between cooperating organizations?
A. SOAP
B. SAML
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: C

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NO.6 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You want to allow some users to access a
particular program on the computers in the network. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Apply remote access policies
B. Apply NTFS permissions
C. Apply group policies
D. Apply account policies
Answer: C

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NO.7 Collaboration platform offers a set of software components and services that enable users to
communicate, share information, and work together for achieving common business goals. What are the
core elements of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Product and service integration
B. Real-time communication
C. Change management
D. Team collaboration
E. Messaging
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.8 You need to ensure that a session key derived from a set of long-term public and private keys will not be
compromised if one of the private keys is compromised in the future?
A. Perfect forward secrecy
B. Secure socket layer
C. Secure shell
D. Security token
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-Z32
Exam Name: Implementing HP MSM Wireless Networks
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HP2-Z32 Exam PDF Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 09-01,2014

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NO.1 Which 802.11n technology involves a radio transmitting the same data on more than one
antenna'?
A. channel bonding
B. band steering
C. multiple spatial streaming
D. transmit beamforming
Answer: C

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NO.2 The MSM APs are deployed on a separate subnet from the controller and network
administrators want to set up Layer 3 DHCP discovery. How will the MSM APs find the MSM
Controller?
A. Avendor option in the DHCP scope lists one or more controller IP addresses.
B. The MSM Controller sends unicast messages to the MSM APs.
C. Once the APs receive an IP address from the DHCP server, they broadcast UDP discovery
messages.
D. The MSM Controller is configured as the MSM APs' default gateway, allowing APs to send a
discovery request to the MSM Controller
Answer: C

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NO.3 A network administrator defines a new network profile on an HP MSM765 zlMobility
Controller but now wants to associate the profile with an IP interface. However, when the network
administrator moves to the Controller> Network > IP interface window, the button for adding a new
interface is grayed out and cannot be clicked.
What should the network administrator do?
A. Remove the VLAN ID from the network profile.
B. Assign the profile as an ingress VLAN in a VSC.
C. Delete one of the existing IP interfaces.
D. Map the profile to a controller port.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A company has an environment with multiple HP MSM Controllers that do not form a team.
The company wants to control which controllers manage which APs. What is one feature that
network administrators can implement for this purpose?
A. provisioning of the APs' 802.1X supplicant settings
B. AP authentication
C. MAC address filters
D. controller interface discovery settings
Answer: B

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NO.5 A company wants to use MSM765 zl Controllers in a team solution that supports 750 MSM APs.
What must the company purchase for this solution?
A. six MSM765zJ Controllers
B. five MSM765 zl Controllers and an additional Premium license for each one
C. four MSM765 zl Controllers and an additional Premium license for each one
D. four MSU765 zl Controllers
Answer: B

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NO.6 HOTSPOT
What should match on HP MSM Controllers in order for the team to form properly?
Answer:

NO.7 A company has an HP MSM solution that consists of an HP MSM Controller and controlled HP
MSM APs. An access-controlled VSC enforces HTML-based user login (Web-Auth) using the
controllers internal login pages. Many clients that will connect to this VSC are configured for Web
proxy to a server on port 8080. The network administrator has enabled the HTTP/HTTPS proxy
support feature.
Which additional step should the administrator take to help these clients log in and use the network?
A. Enable DNS interception.
B. Enable redirection to the public access interface through HTTP rather than HTTPS.
C. Change the port used for HTTP on the controller's public access interface.
D. Create MAC-address public access attributes for the clients with the proxy settings.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A company has an HP MSM solution that consists of an HP MSM760 Access Controller and
controlled HP MSM APs. The solution includes a VSC that enforces local Web-Auth (HTML-based
user login) using web pages and guest accounts configured on the controller The company wants to
prevent guests from logging in after normal business hours.
Which action describes the correct setting to meet these requirements?
A. Create a subscription plan that specifies the valid login times, and apply the plan to the guest
accounts.
B. Configure the valid login times in a RADIUS server policy, which then apply to the site or to
individual user accounts.
C. Set the valid login times in the Virtual Service Community (VSC) used by guests.
D. Setthe valid login times in the global access control settings of the controller (Controller> Public
access > Access control).
Answer: C

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